Tuesday, March 1, 2011

prob. 11.1(e); Lp =0; does Re become 0? which means j1 and j2 = infinity?

Hello everyone,
In prob. 11.1(e); Lp =0; Does that allow us to make Re = 0 as it has Lp in its Numerator ? Making Re=0 would make j1 and j2 = infinity as they have Re in their denominator.
Any comments would be useful.
Thanks,
Nitish

2 comments:

  1. I guess we should leave the various parameters in L unchanged, as done in the buck converter example in class (lecture 18).

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  2. After discussion with Prof. Maksimovic, I realized I need to state this more clearly. We cannot set L = zero in all coefficients and other parameters and elements dependent on L because the converter won't work without L. The only place we are setting L=0 is where the element L is present in the small signal model, so that we neglect the dynamics caused by it.

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